So (thinking ahead a bit to the 2023-2024 tax return) we each have a chunk of our gains being hit for 28% ('cos that's the higher rate on "residential property" - see e.g
https://www.gov.uk/capital-gains-tax/rates )
However it seems to me that it's well worth crystallizing any losses we can to defuse that. e.g if I have a beaten up bond fund with a £10k loss on it and dispose of it, that saves £2800 in tax on the property gains (or does it? see below).
The alternative would be to just sit on the £10k loss for now anticipating using it to offset some other gains in future... but then they'd only be worth £2k in tax relief even at higher rate.
So it seems to me to be a complete no-brainer to flog off every holding that's underwater and crystallize every loss we can because (not having another spare property to sell) we'll never have the opportunity to get such good value from those losses again.
But... I'm a bit suspicious that any time something looks like a no-brainer I'm misunderstanding something. For one thing it seems odd that assets which are "only" taxed at 20% on gains can have their losses used to counterbalance gains on assets which attract 28% tax on gains. So: how does the calculation actually work?
Is it more like (just considering the "big end" of the gain here)
- £50k of property gains taxed at 28% less £10k of bond fund losses is £40k of gains taxed at 28% (tax due £11.2K c.f £14k if the loss wasn't used... saving £2.8k)
or
- £50k of property gains taxed at 28% = £14k tax due less £10k of bond fund losses relieved at 20% = net £12k tax due (saving £2k vs. not using the loss).
or something else?
(This is sort of echoing my earlier comment about the fungibility or not of different "types" of gain/loss taxed at different rates... I really don't understand how it works. Any ideas?)