All the recent discussions regarding Capital Gains calculations raised a question in my mind which Google can't answer to my satisfaction.
Assume a person inherits some shares and then, many years later, decides to sell them. For the purpose of CGT calculations, what value should be used as the "purchase price" for that calculation?
ie, is it the value at time of transfer to the recipient of inheritance (which seems logical) or the value at the original time of purchase (seems unreasonable and probably unknown)?
Thanks
OM