A quick update to add some extra months onto the table for Vanguard 80% returns:

In my first post I flagged that the standard deviation of long term annual returns was no different for the 80% and the 60% funds being 1% over 10 year periods.
I've now repeated the exercise for the 40% version and interestingly it's the same outcome for standard deviation over 10 year periods:

It appears that if you can hold for the long term you are giving up a lot of return in the VLS 40%. The mean return for the VLS 80% over 10 years is 8.8% and the the 40% is 5.2%. Why would you hold 40% for the very long term?
In other words, does "your age in bonds" make sense?
ContextOur financial projection runs on a very prudent assumption of 3% long term returns p.a. and when I started building this model in 2022 I was assuming that I would continue with a 50% / 50% asset allocation. I'm now thinking I should reconsider, especially as I've got a better handle on sequence of returns risk in my head.
If you assume (and this is contested by academics) that stock returns are normally distributed then the table above for 80% would suggest that in 99.7% of cases you will experience 6% annual returns as a minimum with the 80% fund.
Of course there are only 44 data points for the rolling 10 year periods and we have seen a significant bull market since LifeStrategy funds were launched. There is a debate to be had as to whether returns are actually normally distributed but the actual minima and maxima do sit within 3 standard deviations for time periods 3 years+ and for both funds.
Still early days in terms of data? Fair enough but even so, replacing the 3% in my model with say 5% is totally game changing ........